[Dec-2023 Newly Released] SK0-005 Exam Questions For You To Pass
CompTIA SK0-005 Exam: Basic Questions With Answers
NEW QUESTION # 130
Which of the following would MOST likely be part of the user authentication process when implementing SAML across multiple applications?
- A. MFA
- B. LDAP
- C. TACACS
- D. SSO
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.onelogin.com/learn/how-single-sign-on-works
NEW QUESTION # 131
A technician is configuring a server that requires secure remote access. Which of the following ports should the technician use?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
SSH port 22 for secure remote access and 443 is https for encrypted website browsing.
NEW QUESTION # 132
An administrator is troubleshooting a failed NIC in an application server. The server uses DHCP to get all IP configurations, and the server must use a specific IP address. The administrator replaces the NIC, but then the server begins to receive a different and incorrect IP address. Which of the following will enable the server to get the proper IP address?
- A. Modifying the WWNN used on the DHCP reservation
- B. Updating the NIC to use the correct WWNN
- C. Modifying the MAC used on the DHCP reservation
- D. Updating the local hosts file with the correct IP address
Answer: C
Explanation:
A DHCP reservation is a way to assign a specific IP address to a device based on its MAC address, which is a unique identifier for each network interface card (NIC). When the administrator replaced the NIC, the MAC address of the server changed, and the DHCP server no longer recognized it as the same device. Therefore, the DHCP server assigned a different IP address to the server, which was incorrect for the application. To fix this problem, the administrator needs to modify the DHCP reservation to use the new MAC address of the NIC, so that the server can get the proper IP address.
A WWNN (World Wide Node Name) is a unique identifier for a Fibre Channel node, which is a device that can communicate over a Fibre Channel network. A WWNN is not related to DHCP or IP addresses, and it is not used for DHCP reservations. Therefore, options B and D are incorrect.
Updating the local hosts file with the correct IP address (option C) is also incorrect, because it does not solve the problem of getting the correct IP address from the DHCP server. The hosts file is a local file that maps hostnames to IP addresses, and it is used to override DNS queries. However, it does not affect how the DHCP server assigns IP addresses to devices. Moreover, updating the hosts file manually on every device that needs to communicate with the server is not a scalable or efficient solution.
Reference:
How to reserve IP Address in DHCP Server - Ask Ubuntu
Static IP vs DHCP Reservation - The Tech Journal
How to Configure DHCP Server Reservation in Windows ... - ITIngredients
NEW QUESTION # 133
Which of the following cloud models is BEST described as running workloads on resources that are owned by the company and hosted in a company-owned data center, as well as on rented servers in another company's data center?
- A. Hybrid
- B. Private
- C. Public
- D. Community
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is the best description of a hybrid cloud model because it combines both private and public cloud resources. A private cloud is a cloud environment that is owned and operated by a single organization and hosted in its own data center. A public cloud is a cloud environment that is owned and operated by a third-party provider and hosted in its data center. A hybrid cloud allows an organization to leverage both types of cloud resources depending on its needs and preferences. Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/overview/what-is-hybrid-cloud-computing/
NEW QUESTION # 134
A technician has several possible solutions to a reported server issue. Which of the following BEST represents how the technician should proceed with troubleshooting?
- A. Make one change at a time and test.
- B. Determine whether there is a common element in the symptoms causing multiple problems.
- C. Perform a root cause analysis.
- D. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes throughout the process.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The question states that there are several possible solutions so step #4 - Establish a theory has been done. Next is to test the theory changing one thing at a time and test for resolution.
Identify the problem.
Research.
Establish a theory of probable cause.
Test the theory.
Establish a plan of action.
Implement or escalate.
Verify functionality.
Document the solution.
https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/post/CompTIA-troubleshooting-steps-and-solving-common- computer-problems
NEW QUESTION # 135
A server administrator notices the on a Linux server is rotating loo frequently. The administrator would like to decrease the number of times the leg rotates without losing any of the information in the logs. Which of the following should the administrator configure?
- A. Remove the tog rotate directive from the audit .log We configuration.
- B. Decrease the duration of the log rotate cycle tor the audit. log file.
- C. Move the audit. leg files to a remote syslog server.
- D. increase the audit. log file size in the appropriate confutation file.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The audit.log file is a file that records security-related events on a Linux server, such as user login, file access, and system commands. The logrotate utility is a tool that rotates, compresses, and deletes old log files based on certain criteria, such as size, time, or frequency. To decrease the number of times the log rotates without losing any information, the administrator should increase the audit.log file size in the appropriate configuration file, such as /etc/logrotate.conf or /etc/logrotate.d/auditd. Verified References: [audit.log], [logrotate]
NEW QUESTION # 136
A technician has been asked to check on a SAN. Upon arrival, the technician notices the red LED indicator shows a disk has failed. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT, given the disk is hot swappable?
- A. Replace the disk
- B. Stop sharing the volume
- C. Stop all connections to the volume
- D. Shut down the SAN
Answer: A
Explanation:
The next thing that the technician should do, given the disk is hot swappable, is to replace the disk. A hot swappable disk is a disk that can be removed and replaced without shutting down the system or affecting its operation. A hot swappable disk is typically used in a storage array that has RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) configuration that provides fault tolerance and redundancy. If a disk fails in a RAID array, it can be replaced by a new disk without interrupting the service or losing any data. The new disk will automatically rebuild itself using the data from the other disks in the array.
NEW QUESTION # 137
A remote, embedded loT server is having a Linux OS upgrade installed. Which of the following is the best method to stage the new media for the default boot device of the server?
- A. Copy and send a DVD to the site.
- B. Copy and send a SATA drive to the site.
- C. Copy and send a microSD card to the site.
- D. Copy and send an SSD to the site.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A microSD card is the best method to stage the new media for the default boot device of a remote embedded IoT server that is having a Linux OS upgrade installed. A microSD card is a small and portable storage device that can store large amounts of data. It can be easily inserted into the slot of an embedded IoT server, which is a small and low-power device that performs specific tasks and connects to other devices over a network. A microSD card can also be formatted with different file systems, such as FAT32 or ext4, which are compatible with Linux OS. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.3: Given a scenario, configure servers for IoT applications.
NEW QUESTION # 138
A server administrator just installed a new physical server and needs to harden the applications on the server. Which of the following best describes a method of application hardening?
- A. Install the latest patches.
- B. Set the boot order.
- C. Enable a BIOS password.
- D. Disable unneeded hardware.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A method of application hardening is installing the latest patches. Application hardening is a process of reducing the attack surface and vulnerabilities of an application by applying security measures and best practices. Installing the latest patches is one way to harden an application, as patches are updates that fix bugs, errors, or security issues in an application. By installing the latest patches, an application can be protected from known exploits or threats.
NEW QUESTION # 139
A server administrator is using remote access to update a server. The administrator notices numerous error messages when using YUM to update the applications on a server.
Which of the following should the administrator check FIRST?
- A. LVM status on the server
- B. YUM dependencies
- C. Network connectivity on the server
- D. Disk space in the /var directory
Answer: D
Explanation:
https://serverfault.com/questions/490261/cannot-use-any-yum-command-no-space-left-on-device
NEW QUESTION # 140
A server administrator is deploying a new server that has two hard drives on which to install the OS. Which of the following RAID configurations should be used to provide redundancy for the OS?
- A. RAID 0
- B. RAID 1
- C. RAID 6
- D. RAID 5
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
RAID 1 (mirroring) is a RAID configuration that should be used to provide redundancy for the OS on a server that has two hard drives on which to install the OS. RAID 1 (mirroring) is a configuration that duplicates data across two or more drives. It provides fault tolerance and improves read performance, but reduces storage capacity by half. If one drive fails in RAID 1, the other drive can continue to operate without data loss or system downtime. RAID 0 (striping) is a configuration that splits data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. It improves performance but offers no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 5 (striping with parity) is a configuration that stripes data across three or more drives with parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by one drive's worth of space. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two or more. RAID 6 (striping with double parity) is a configuration that stripes data across four or more drives with double parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by two drives' worth of space. RAID 6 can tolerate two drive failures without data loss, but not three or more. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/199068/how-to-upgrade-your-existing-hard-drive-in-under-an-hour/
NEW QUESTION # 141
Which of the following licenses would MOST likely include vendor assistance?
- A. Version compatibility
- B. Subscription
- C. Maintenance and support
- D. Open-source
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 142
Which of the following ensures a secondary network path is available if the primary connection fails?
- A. Heartbeat
- B. Link aggregation
- C. Fault tolerance
- D. Most recently used
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Fault tolerance is the ability of a system to continue functioning in the event of a failure of one or more of its components. Fault tolerance can ensure a secondary network path is available if the primary connection fails.
Fault tolerance can be achieved by using redundant components, such as network cards, cables, switches, routers, etc., that can take over the function of the failed component without interrupting the service.
References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 2.2)
NEW QUESTION # 143
Following a recent power outage, a server in the datacenter has been constantly going offline and losing its configuration. Users have been experiencing access issues while using the application on the server. The server technician notices the data and time are incorrect when the server is online. All other servers are working. Which of the following would MOST likely cause this issue?
(Choose two.)
- A. The server has a faulty power supply
- B. The server has a CMOS battery failure
- C. The server has a malfunctioning LED panel
- D. The servers do not have NTP configured
- E. The time synchronization service is disabled on the servers
- F. The server requires OS updates
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 144
A server technician arrives at a data center to troubleshoot a physical server that is not responding to remote management software. The technician discovers the servers in the data center are not connected to a KVM switch, and their out-of-band management cards have not been configured. Which of the following should the technician do to access the server for troubleshooting purposes?
- A. Connect the diagnostic card to the PCle connector.
- B. Connect the virtual administration console.
- C. Connect a console cable to the server NIC.
- D. Connect to the server from a crash cart.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A crash cart is a mobile device that consists of a monitor, a keyboard, a mouse, and a network connection. It can be used to access a physical server that is not responding to remote management software or does not have out-of-band management cards configured. The technician can connect the crash cart to the server using a VGA or HDMI cable and troubleshoot the server locally. Verified Reference: [Crash cart], [Out-of-band management]
NEW QUESTION # 145
When configuring networking on a VM, which of the following methods would allow multiple VMs to share the same host IP address?
- A. Host only
- B. vSwitch
- C. NAT
- D. Bridged
Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.virtualbox.org/manual/ch06.html
NEW QUESTION # 146
A company stores extremely sensitive data on an air-gapped system.
Which of the following can be implemented to increase security against a potential insider threat?
- A. SSO
- B. Faraday cage
- C. MFA
- D. SIEM
- E. Two-person Integrity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Air-gapping is a sound security strategy - but one must acknowledge both its gaps and implications on the security products you can use. Silverfort's MFA enables you to enforce secure authentication and validate the identity of users in air-gapped networks, ensuring they are protected against identity-based attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 147
A systems administrator has been alerted to a zero-day vulnerability that is impacting a service enabled on a server OS. Which of the following would work BEST to limit an attacker from exploiting this vulnerability?
- A. Closing open ports
- B. Enabling antivirus protection
- C. Enabling a NIDS
- D. Installing the latest patches
Answer: A
Explanation:
A zero-day (or 0-day) vulnerability is a software vulnerability that is discovered by attackers before the vendor has become aware of it. By definition, no patch exists for zero day vulnerabilities and user systems have no defenses in place, making attacks highly likely to succeed. One of the most common recovery methods for a zero-day attacks is to physically (or via a network-based firewall) remove all access from anyone who would have the ability to exploit it. Blocking the ports used for Remote PowerShell can limit these attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 148
When configuring networking on a VM, which of the following methods would allow multiple VMs to share the same host IP address?
- A. Host only
- B. vSwitch
- C. NAT
- D. Bridged
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The method that would allow multiple VMs to share the same host IP address is NAT. NAT (Network Address Translation) is a technique that allows multiple devices to use a single public IP address by mapping their private IP addresses to different port numbers. NAT can be used for VM networking to enable multiple VMs on the same host to access the internet or other networks using the host's IP address. NAT can also provide security benefits by hiding the VMs' private IP addresses from external networks.
NEW QUESTION # 149
A user can successfully connect to a database server from a home office but is unable to access it from a hotel room. Which of the following authentication methods is most likely configured?
- A. Rule-based
- B. Scope-based
- C. Role-based
- D. Delegation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Scope-based authentication is a method of restricting access to resources based on the location, network, or device of the user. It can be used to prevent unauthorized access from outside the organization's network or from untrusted devices. In this case, the user can connect to the database server from the home office, which is likely within the scope of the authentication policy, but not from the hotel room, which is outside the scope.
References:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 15
CompTIA Server+: Authentication & Authorization2
NEW QUESTION # 150
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