[Apr 02, 2024] Free4Dump CDIP Exam Practice Test Questions (Updated 140 Questions) [Q46-Q68]

Share

[Apr 02, 2024] Free4Dump CDIP Exam Practice Test Questions (Updated 140 Questions)

Pass AHIMA CDIP Exam Info and Free Practice Test

NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following is the definition of an Excludes 2 note in ICD-10-CM?

  • A. Only one code can be assigned to completely describe the condition
  • B. Two codes can be used together to completely describe the condition
  • C. This is not a convention found in ICD-10-CM
  • D. Neither of the codes can be assigned

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
An Excludes 2 note in ICD-10-CM indicates that the condition excluded is not part of the condition represented by the code, but a patient may have both conditions at the same time. When an Excludes 2 note appears under a code, it is acceptable to use both the code and the excluded code together to completely describe the condition. For example, under code R05 Cough, there is an Excludes 2 note for whooping cough (A37.-). This means that a patient can have both a cough and whooping cough at the same time, and both codes can be used together to capture the full clinical picture.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) ICD-10-CM Features | Diagnosis Coding: Using the ICD-10-CM1


NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of these medical conditions would a clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) expect to be treated with Levophed?

  • A. Septic shock
  • B. Multiple sclerosis
  • C. Acute kidney failure
  • D. Acute respiratory failure

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Levophed is a brand name of norepinephrine, a medication that is similar to adrenaline and acts as a vasopressor, meaning that it constricts blood vessels and increases blood pressure. Levophed is indicated to raise blood pressure in adult patients with severe, acute hypotension (low blood pressure) that can occur with certain medical conditions or surgical procedures1. One of these conditions is septic shock, which is a life-threatening complication of sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response to infection. Septic shock is characterized by persistent hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation, along with signs of organ dysfunction and tissue hypoperfusion. Levophed is used as a first-line vasopressor agent in septic shock to restore adequate perfusion pressure and tissue oxygenation.
Acute respiratory failure, multiple sclerosis, and acute kidney failure are not indications for Levophed treatment. Acute respiratory failure is a condition in which the lungs cannot provide enough oxygen to the blood or remove enough carbon dioxide from the blood. It can be caused by various lung diseases, injuries, or infections. The treatment of acute respiratory failure depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition, but it may include oxygen therapy, mechanical ventilation, medications to treat infections or inflammation, or other supportive measures. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system, causing inflammation, demyelination, and axonal damage. The symptoms of multiple sclerosis vary depending on the location and extent of the nerve damage, but they may include vision problems, numbness, weakness, fatigue, cognitive impairment, or pain. The treatment of multiple sclerosis aims to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses, slow the progression of disability, and manage the symptoms. It may include immunomodulatory drugs, corticosteroids, symptomatic medications, physical therapy, or other interventions. Acute kidney failure is a condition in which the kidneys suddenly lose their ability to filter waste products and fluids from the blood. It can be caused by various factors that impair the blood flow to the kidneys, damage the kidney tissue, or block the urine output. The symptoms of acute kidney failure may include decreased urine output, fluid retention, nausea, confusion, or shortness of breath. The treatment of acute kidney failure depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition, but it may include fluid management, electrolyte replacement, dialysis, medications to treat infections or inflammation, or other supportive measures.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Levophed Uses, Side Effects & Warnings - Drugs.com Levophed (Norepinephrine Bitartrate): Uses, Dosage ... - RxList Levarterenol, Levophed (norepinephrine) dosing ... - Medscape
[Septic Shock: Practice Essentials ... - Medscape Reference]
[Surviving Sepsis Campaign: International Guidelines for ... - PubMed]
[Acute respiratory failure: MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia]
[Multiple sclerosis - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic]
[Acute kidney failure - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic]


NEW QUESTION # 48
A 100-year-old female presents to the emergency department with altered mental state and a 3-day history of productive cough, shortness of breath, and fever after a witnessed aspiration 3 days ago. The patient lives in custodial care at a nearby skilled nursing facility. Patient was treated with Augmentin at the facility without improvement. Exam is notable for Tc 38.9, blood pressure 142/78, respiratory rate 28, pulse 91. There is accessory muscle use with breathing.
Patient is moaning and disoriented but
otherwise the neurologic exam is nonfocal.
Labs notable for sodium 126, creatinine 0.5. white blood count 17.5, hemoglobin 13, platelet 200. venous blood gas 7.44/32/45/-3 Chest x-ray shows bilateral lower lobe infiltrates and dense right lower lobe consolidation.
Patient is placed on bilevel positive airway pressure and given vancomycin, pip/tazo, levofloxacin.
Discharge Diagnosis: health care associated pneumonia (HCAP), respiratory distress, altered mental status, low sodium Which list of diagnoses require a post-discharge query that will result in a more specific principal diagnosis with the highest level of severity of illness and risk of mortality?

  • A. Sepsis with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure, hyponatremia, pneumonia
  • B. Aspiration pneumonia, hyponatremia, septic encephalopathy, and sepsis with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure
  • C. Coma, stroke, HCAP, hypernatremia
  • D. Severe sepsis, hypernatremia, delirium, pneumonia

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
A post-discharge query is needed to obtain a more specific principal diagnosis with the highest level of severity of illness (SOI) and risk of mortality (ROM) for this patient. The discharge diagnosis of health care associated pneumonia (HCAP) is not specific enough to capture the etiology, site, and severity of the pneumonia. Based on the clinical indicators in the case scenario, such as the history of aspiration, the chest x-ray findings, the elevated white blood count, the fever, and the antibiotic treatment, a more specific diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia would be appropriate. Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that occurs when foreign material, such as food or vomit, is inhaled into the lungs, causing inflammation and infection. Aspiration pneumonia has a higher SOI and ROM than HCAP because it is associated with more complications and poorer outcomes 1.
Additionally, the discharge diagnosis of altered mental status is vague and does not reflect the underlying cause or severity of the condition. Based on the clinical indicators in the case scenario, such as the fever, the low sodium level, the moaning and disorientation, and the venous blood gas results, a more specific diagnosis of septic encephalopathy would be appropriate. Septic encephalopathy is a type of delirium that occurs when sepsis affects the brain function, causing confusion, agitation, or reduced consciousness. Septic encephalopathy has a higher SOI and ROM than altered mental status because it indicates a systemic inflammatory response and multi-organ dysfunction 2.
Furthermore, the discharge diagnosis of respiratory distress is also vague and does not reflect the underlying cause or severity of the condition. Based on the clinical indicators in the case scenario, such as the shortness of breath, the accessory muscle use, the respiratory rate, and the bilevel positive airway pressure treatment, a more specific diagnosis of acute hypoxemic respiratory failure would be appropriate. Acute hypoxemic respiratory failure is a type of respiratory failure that occurs when there is insufficient oxygen exchange in the lungs, causing low oxygen levels in the blood. Acute hypoxemic respiratory failure has a higher SOI and ROM than respiratory distress because it indicates a life-threatening condition that requires mechanical ventilation or oxygen therapy 3.
Finally, based on the clinical indicators in the case scenario, such as the fever, the elevated white blood count, and the antibiotic treatment, a diagnosis of sepsis should also be included in the query. Sepsis is a serious complication of infection that occurs when the body's immune system overreacts to an infection and causes widespread inflammation and organ damage. Sepsis has a high SOI and ROM because it can lead to septic shock or death if not treated promptly 4.
Therefore, a post-discharge query should ask the provider to confirm or rule out aspiration pneumonia, hyponatremia (low sodium level), septic encephalopathy, and sepsis with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure as possible diagnoses for this patient. These diagnoses would result in a more specific principal diagnosis with the highest level of SOI and ROM for this patient.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) Aspiration Pneumonia - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics1 Septic Encephalopathy - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2 Acute Hypoxemic Respiratory Failure - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics3 Sepsis - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic4


NEW QUESTION # 49
A 45-year-old female is admitted after sustaining a femur fracture. Orthopedics is consulted and performs an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) of the femur without complication. Nursing documents the patient has a body mass index of 42 kg/m2. The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) determines a query is needed to capture a diagnosis associated with the body mass index so it can be reported. Which of the following is the MOST compliant query based on the most recent AHIIMA/ACDIS query practice brief?

  • A. Nursing documents the BMI is 42 kg/m2. To increase the severity of illness and risk of mortality, please add 'morbid obesity with BMI 42 kg/m2' to your next progress note.
  • B. Nursing documents the BMI is 42 kg/m2. In order to capture a co-morbid condition (CC) to increase reimbursement, please add 'morbid obesity with BMI 42 kg/m2' to your next progress note.
  • C. Nursing documents the BMI is 42 kg/m2. Please consider if any of the following diagnoses should be added to the health record to support this finding: morbid obesity; obesity; other diagnosis (please state)
  • D. Nursing documents the BMI is 42 kg/m2. Can you please clarify if the patient's morbid obesity was present on admission and add the diagnosis to future progress notes?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
This is the most compliant query based on the most recent AHIMA/ACDIS query practice brief because it is non-leading, non-suggestive, and provides multiple options for the physician to choose from. It also does not imply any financial or quality implications for adding a diagnosis associated with the BMI.
References: AHIMA/ACDIS. "Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update)." Journal of AHIMA 90, no. 2 (February 2019): 20-29.


NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is used to measure the impact of a clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program on Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services quality performance?

  • A. Severity of illness
  • B. Case mix index
  • C. Risk of mortality
  • D. Outcome measures

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Outcome measures are indicators of the quality of care provided by a healthcare organization, such as mortality rates, readmission rates, hospital-acquired conditions, patient safety indicators, and patient satisfaction scores. These measures are used by CMS to evaluate and compare the performance of hospitals and other providers under various pay-for-performance programs, such as value-based purchasing, hospital readmissions reduction program, hospital-acquired condition reduction program, and hospital inpatient quality reporting program. A CDI program can influence these outcome measures by ensuring that the clinical documentation accurately reflects the severity of illness, risk of mortality, and complexity of care of the patients. This can help to improve the risk adjustment and case mix index of the organization, as well as to identify and prevent potential quality issues.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) CDIP Exam Preparation Guide (https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077)


NEW QUESTION # 51
The most beneficial step to identify post-discharge query opportunities that affect severity of illness, risk of mortality and case weight is to

  • A. look for documented conditions that have well supported accompanying clinical criteria
  • B. watch for reportable conditions or conditions that are unambiguous or otherwise complete
  • C. determine if only the treatment is documented and there is no diagnosis documented
  • D. identify normal diagnostic test results that may indicate a possible addition of a secondary diagnosis

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 52
A clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program that is compliant with regulations from the facility's payors results in

  • A. less risk from audits
  • B. higher overall program cost
  • C. meeting external benchmarks
  • D. need for more CDI staff

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 53
A key physician approaches the director of the coding department about the new emphasis associated with clinical documentation integrity (CDI). The physician does not support the program and believes the initiative will encourage inappropriate billing.
How should the director respond to the concerns?

  • A. Develop an administrative panel to oversee CDI process
  • B. Inform the physician that changes must be made
  • C. Involve the physician advisor/champion in addressing the medical staff's concerns
  • D. Refer the physician to the finance department to discuss required billing changes

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The director should involve the physician advisor/champion in addressing the medical staff's concerns because the physician advisor/champion is a key member of the CDI team who can provide clinical expertise, education, and leadership to promote CDI among physicians. The physician advisor/champion can help to explain the goals and benefits of CDI, such as improving patient care quality, accuracy of documentation, and appropriate reimbursement. The physician advisor/champion can also address any misconceptions or fears that the physicians may have about CDI, such as encouraging inappropriate billing or increasing their workload.
The physician advisor/champion can serve as a liaison between the CDI team and the medical staff, and foster a culture of collaboration and trust.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) CDIP Exam Preparation Guide (https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077)


NEW QUESTION # 54
The clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager is reviewing physician benchmarks and notices a low-severity level being measured against average length of stay.
What should the CDI manager keep in mind when discussing this observation with physicians?

  • A. The diagnosis with a higher degree of specificity has a lower severity of illness.
  • B. The indicator is a key factor of measurement for quality reports.
  • C. The query response rate directly correlates to quality reports.
  • D. The query rate is too high while the agreement rate is low.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, one of the CDI metrics and statistics that CDI managers should track and interpret is the severity level measured against average length of stay (ALOS)1. This indicator reflects the complexity and acuity of the patient population and the quality of care provided by the hospital2. A low-severity level with a high ALOS may indicate under-documentation or under-coding of the patient's condition, which may affect the hospital's reimbursement, risk adjustment, and quality scores3. Therefore, the CDI manager should keep in mind that this indicator is a key factor of measurement for quality reports when discussing this observation with physicians, and educate them on the importance of documenting and coding accurately and completely to reflect the patient's true severity of illness. The other options are not correct because they do not address the issue of severity level measured against ALOS, or they are not relevant to the CDI manager's role or responsibility. References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide - AHIMA
Demystifying and communicating case-mix index - ACDIS
Severity of Illness: What Is It? Why Is It Important? | HCPro


NEW QUESTION # 55
A 50-year-old male patient was admitted with complaint of 3-day history of shortness of breath. Vital signs:
BP 165/90, P 90, T 99.9.F, O2 sat 95% on room air. Patient
has history of asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and hypertension (HTN). His medicines are Albuterol and Norvasc. CXR showed chronic lung disease and left lower lobe infiltrate. Labs: WBC 9.5 with 65% segs. Physician documented that patient has asthma flair and admitted with decompensated COPD, ordered IV steroids, O2 at 2L/min via nasal cannula, Albuterol inhalers 4x per day, and Clindamycin. Patient improved and was discharged 3 days later. Which action would have the highest impact on the patient's severity of illness (SOI) and risk of mortality (ROM)?

  • A. Query the physician to clarify for clinical significance of the CXR results.
  • B. Query the physician to clarify if CXR result means patient has pneumonia.
  • C. Query the physician to clarify if patient has acute COPD exacerbation.
  • D. Query the physician to clarify for type of COPD such as severe asthma.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 56
A 77-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted as an inpatient with severe shortness of breath. The patient is placed on oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. History reveals that the patient is on oxygen nightly at home. CXR is unremarkable. The most compliant query is

  • A. Patient has COPD and is on oxygen every night at home and has been on continuous oxygen since admission. Based on these indications, please document chronic respiratory failure, acute respiratory failure, acute on chronic respiratory failure.
  • B. Patient has COPD, and is on nocturnal oxygen at home and is on continuous oxygen since admission.
    Please indicate if you are treating one of these diagnoses: chronic respiratory failure, acute respiratory failure, acute on chronic respiratory failure, unable to determine, other.
  • C. Patient has COPD, and is on nocturnal oxygen at home and is on continuous oxygen since admission.
    Please order further tests so the patient's severity of illness can be captured with the most accurate coding assignment.
  • D. Patient has COPD and is on oxygen every night at home and has been on continuous oxygen since admission, please document chronic respiratory failure, hypoxia, acute on chronic respiratory failure.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA/ACDIS Query Practice Brief, a compliant query should provide multiple choice answer options that are supported by clinical indicators and include a non-leading query statement1. Option C meets these criteria, as it provides a list of possible diagnoses that are relevant to the patient's condition and asks the provider to indicate which one they are treating. Option C also does not imply or suggest a preferred answer or outcome, and allows the provider to choose unable to determine or other if none of the listed options apply. Option A is not compliant, as it does not provide any answer options and implies that the provider should order more tests to capture a higher severity of illness. Option B is not compliant, as it provides only one answer option and suggests that the provider should document it based on the clinical indicators. Option D is not compliant, as it provides only one answer option and implies that the provider should document it based on the indications. References:
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA


NEW QUESTION # 57
A 50-year-old with a history of stage II lung cancer is brought to the emergency department with severe dyspnea. The patient underwent the last round of chemotherapy
3 days ago. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 98.4, a heart rate of 98, a respiratory rate of 28, and a blood pressure of 124/82. O2 saturation on room air is 92%. The patient is 5'5"and weighs 98 lbs. The registered dietitian notes the patient is malnourished with BMI of 19.
Chest x-ray reveals a large pleural effusion in the right lung.
Thoracentesis is performed and 1000 cc serosanguinous fluid is removed. The admitting diagnosis is large right lung pleural effusion related to lung cancer stage II, documented multiple times. What post discharge query opportunity should be sent to the physician that will affect severity of illness (SOI)/risk of mortality (ROM)?

  • A. Query if the malignant pleural effusion is the reason for admission
  • B. Query for a diagnosis associated with the dietician's finding of malnutrition
  • C. Query for protein calorie malnutrition
  • D. Query for malignant pleural effusion

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, a query is a communication tool or process used to clarify documentation in the health record for documentation integrity and accurate code assignment1. A query should be clear, concise, and consistent, and should include relevant clinical indicators that support the query1. A query should also provide multiple choice answer options that are supported by clinical indicators and include a non-leading query statement2. In this case, the patient has a large right lung pleural effusion related to lung cancer stage II, which is documented multiple times. However, the documentation does not specify whether the pleural effusion is malignant or not. A malignant pleural effusion is a condition where cancer cells spread to the pleural space and cause fluid accumulation3. A malignant pleural effusion is a major complication or comorbidity (MCC) that affects the severity of illness (SOI) and risk of mortality (ROM) of the patient, as well as the reimbursement and quality scores of the hospital4. Therefore, a post discharge query opportunity should be sent to the physician to clarify whether the pleural effusion is malignant or not, based on the clinical indicators such as chest x-ray, thoracentesis, and fluid analysis. The query should provide answer options such as malignant pleural effusion, non-malignant pleural effusion, unable to determine, or other. The other options are not correct because they either do not affect the SOI/ROM of the patient (A and C), or they do not address the specificity of the diagnosis (D). References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide - AHIMA
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA Malignant Pleural Effusion: Symptoms, Causes, Diagnosis & Treatment Q&A: Coding for malignant pleural effusions | ACDIS


NEW QUESTION # 58
A patient was admitted for high fever and pain in umbilical region. During the second day of the hospital stay, the patient stood up to use the restroom and fell on the floor, resulting in a broken chin bone. A physician noted the fall on the second day in progress note. Which further clarification should be done regarding present on admission (POA) indicator of fall?

  • A. Take the case to physician advisor/champion to discuss further action
  • B. Query physician for POA
  • C. Bring this case up in weekly Health Information Management meetings for further action
  • D. No query is needed

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
A query should be generated to ask the physician for the POA indicator of the fall because the documentation is unclear whether the fall was present at the time of inpatient admission or not. The POA indicator is used to identify conditions that are present or not present at the time of admission, and has payment implications for certain hospital-acquired conditions (HACs). According to CMS, a fall resulting in trauma is one of the HACs that will not be paid at a higher rate if it is not present on admission. Therefore, it is important to clarify the POA indicator of the fall to ensure accurate coding and reimbursement. A query should be non-leading, concise, clear, relevant, and consistent with CDI standards and guidelines.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) Coding | CMS1 Present on Admission Indicators - Novitas Solutions2


NEW QUESTION # 59
Which member of the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) team can help provide peer-to-peer level of education on the importance of accurate documentation and query responses?

  • A. CDI manager
  • B. Chief Financial Officer
  • C. Physician advisor/champion
  • D. CDI practitioner

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The member of the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) team who can help provide peer-to-peer level of education on the importance of accurate documentation and query responses is the physician advisor/champion. The physician advisor/champion is a physician who supports and advocates for the CDI program and its goals, and who can communicate effectively with other physicians about the clinical and financial implications of documentation quality and accuracy. The physician advisor/champion can also serve as a liaison between the CDI team and the medical staff, and help to resolve any issues or conflicts that may arise from the query process. The physician advisor/champion can also provide feedback and guidance to the CDI team on clinical matters and documentation standards. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2


NEW QUESTION # 60
The clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager reviewed all payer refined-diagnosis related groups (APR-DRG) benchmarking data and has identified potential opportunities for improvement. The manager hopes to develop a work plan to target severity of illness (SOI)/risk of mortality (ROM) by service line and providers. How can the manager gain more information about this situation?

  • A. Audit cases for missed diagnosis by the CDI practitioner to target in the education plan
  • B. Audit cases that have high SOI/ROM assigned by coders for education and follow-up
  • C. Audit focused cases by physicians that have a higher SOI/ROM for education plan
  • D. Audit focused APR-DRGs and develop education plan for CDI team and physicians

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
APR-DRGs are a patient classification system that assigns each inpatient stay to one of more than 300 base APR-DRGs, and then further stratifies each base APR-DRG into four levels of severity of illness (SOI) and risk of mortality (ROM), based on the number, nature, and interaction of complications and comorbidities (CCs) and major CCs (MCCs). SOI reflects the extent of physiologic decompensation or organ system loss of function, while ROM reflects the likelihood of dying. Both SOI and ROM are used to adjust payment rates, quality indicators, and performance measures for hospitals and other healthcare providers.
The CDI manager can gain more information about the potential opportunities for improvement by auditing focused APR-DRGs that have a high impact on SOI/ROM levels, such as those that have a large variation in relative weights across the four severity levels, or those that have a high frequency or volume of cases. The audit can help identify the documentation gaps, inconsistencies, or inaccuracies that may affect the assignment of SOI/ROM levels, such as missing, vague, or conflicting diagnoses, procedures, or clinical indicators. The audit can also help evaluate the CDI team's performance in terms of query rate, response rate, agreement rate, and accuracy rate. Based on the audit findings, the CDI manager can develop an education plan for both the CDI team and the physicians to address the specific documentation improvement areas and provide feedback and guidance on best practices.
A: Audit cases for missed diagnosis by the CDI practitioner to target in the education plan. This is not the best way to gain more information about the situation, because it may not capture all the factors that affect SOI/ROM levels, such as procedures, clinical indicators, or interactions among diagnoses. It may also focus only on the CDI practitioner's performance, without considering the physician's role in documentation quality and completeness.
B: Audit focused cases by physicians that have a higher SOI/ROM for education plan. This is not a valid way to gain more information about the situation, because it may not identify the documentation improvement opportunities for cases that have a lower SOI/ROM than expected, based on their clinical complexity and acuity. It may also create a perception of bias or favoritism among physicians, if only some are selected for audit and education.
C: Audit cases that have high SOI/ROM assigned by coders for education and follow-up. This is not a reliable way to gain more information about the situation, because it may not reflect the true SOI/ROM levels of the cases, if there are errors or discrepancies in coding or grouping. It may also overlook the documentation improvement opportunities for cases that have low SOI/ROM assigned by coders, despite having high clinical complexity and acuity.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530
3M™ All Patient Refined Diagnosis Related Groups (APR DRGs) | 3M United States Q&A: Understanding SOI and ROM in the APR-DRG system | ACDIS Use SOI/ROM scores to enhance CDI program effectiveness | ACDIS


NEW QUESTION # 61
When writing a compliant query, best practice is to

  • A. direct the physician to a specific diagnosis
  • B. use a yes/no query format for specificity of a diagnosis
  • C. include all relevant clinical indicators
  • D. use the term "possible" to describe a condition or diagnosis when uncertain if the diagnosis is present

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
One of the best practices for writing a compliant query is to include all relevant clinical indicators from the health record that support the need for clarification and the query options. Clinical indicators are objective and measurable signs, symptoms, laboratory results, diagnostic test results, medications, treatments, and other documented findings that are related to a specific diagnosis or condition. Including clinical indicators helps to provide the rationale for the query, avoid leading or suggesting a desired response, and ensure that the query is based on evidence and not assumptions. The other options are not best practices for writing a compliant query.
Directing the physician to a specific diagnosis is leading and noncompliant. Using the term "possible" to describe a condition or diagnosis when uncertain if the diagnosis is present is vague and imprecise. Using a yes/no query format for specificity of a diagnosis is discouraged, as it limits the provider's choices and may not capture the true clinical picture.


NEW QUESTION # 62
A 75-year-old, diabetic patient with a history of osteoporosis, being treated with Fosamax, who sustained a femur fracture after falling down three stairs. The provider's documentation indicates to admit the patient for a traumatic femur fracture and an orthopedics consult is pending. The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) decides to query for a possible link between osteoporosis and the femur fracture. Which of the following is the most compliant query based on the most recent AHIMA/ACDIS query practice brief?

  • A. Patient admitted for a femur fracture with a history of osteoporosis being treated with Fosamax. Please clarify the cause of the femur fracture in your next note and/or the discharge summary.
  • B. Patient admitted for a femur fracture with a history of osteoporosis being treated with Fosamax. Could diabetes be a contributing factor in the femur fracture?
  • C. Patient admitted for a femur fracture with a history of osteoporosis being treated with Fosamax. Please document "femur fracture due to osteoporosis" in your next progress note to demonstrate a link between the two diagnoses.
  • D. Patient admitted for a femur fracture with a history of osteoporosis being treated with Fosamax. In your medical opinion, is this fracture consistent with an osteoporotic pathological fracture?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
This query option is the most compliant based on the most recent AHIMA/ACDIS query practice brief because it meets the following criteria:
It is based on clinical indicators in the health record that support a reasonable and logical connection between the conditions (femur fracture and osteoporosis).
It is non-leading and non-suggestive, as it does not imply a specific answer or diagnosis, but rather asks for the provider's opinion based on their clinical judgment.
It is concise and clear, as it uses simple and direct language that avoids ambiguity or confusion.
It is relevant and specific, as it addresses a clinical issue that has an impact on patient care, quality reporting, and/or reimbursement.
It is consistent with clinical documentation integrity (CDI) standards and guidelines, as it follows the AHIMA/ACDIS query practice brief recommendations for query format, content, delivery, and documentation.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) CDIP Exam Preparation Guide (https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077) Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice-2022 Update (https://acdis.org/resources/guidelines-achieving-compliant-query-practice%E2%80%942022-update)


NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following can be evidence of physician-hospital alignment?

  • A. A high physician response rate
  • B. A low physician agreement rate
  • C. A high clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) query rate
  • D. A high physician agreement rate

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
A high physician agreement rate can be evidence of physician-hospital alignment because it indicates that the physicians are supportive of the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program and its goals, and that they are willing to provide accurate and complete documentation in response to CDI queries. A high physician agreement rate also reflects a positive relationship and communication between the CDI team and the physicians, as well as a mutual understanding of the benefits of CDI for patient care, quality reporting, and reimbursement. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2


NEW QUESTION # 64
A patient was admitted with complaints of confusion, weakness, and slurred speech. A CT of the head and MRI were performed and resulted in normal findings. Daily aspirin was administered and a speech therapy evaluation was conducted. The final diagnosis on discharge was transient ischemic attack, and cerebrovascular disease was ruled out. What is the correct diagnostic related group assignment?

  • A. 069 Transient Ischemia
  • B. 948 Signs and Symptoms without MCC
  • C. 093 Other Disorders of Nervous System without CC/MCC
  • D. 066 Intracranial Hemorrhage or Cerebral Infarction without CC/MCC

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a neurological event with the signs and symptoms of a stroke, but which go away within a short period of time. TIA is assigned to DRG 069, which is a medical DRG. Cerebrovascular disease was ruled out, so it cannot be coded as a secondary diagnosis. The other options are incorrect because they do not reflect the principal diagnosis of TIA.


NEW QUESTION # 65
A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) hired by an internal medicine clinic is creating policies governing written queries. What is an AHIMA best practice for these policies?

  • A. Queries for illegible chart notes are unnecessary
  • B. Non-responses to written queries are grounds for discipline
  • C. Primary care physicians must answer written queries
  • D. Queries are limited to non-leading questions

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA best practice for written queries, queries should be limited to non-leading questions that do not imply a specific answer or diagnosis, but rather ask for the provider's opinion based on their clinical judgment and the evidence in the health record. Non-leading questions help to ensure that the query is compliant, objective, and respectful of the provider's authority and autonomy. Leading questions, on the other hand, may introduce bias, influence the provider's response, or compromise the integrity of the documentation and coding. For example, a non-leading query for a patient with chest pain would be: "What is the etiology of the chest pain?" A leading query would be: "Is the chest pain due to acute myocardial infarction?" References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice-2022 Update1


NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following individuals is the first line of escalation for an unanswered query?

  • A. HIM/Coding Manager
  • B. CDI Steering Committee
  • C. Medical Director
  • D. CDI Manager

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The first line of escalation for an unanswered query is the CDI Manager because they are responsible for overseeing the CDI program and ensuring compliance with query policies and procedures. The CDI Manager can monitor the query response rates, identify the providers who are not responding, and communicate with them to address any issues or barriers. The CDI Manager can also provide education and feedback to the providers on the importance and benefits of timely query responses. If the CDI Manager is unable to resolve the problem, then they can escalate it to the next level, such as the Medical Director or the CDI Steering Committee. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
Q&A: Establishing an escalation policy for inappropriate queries3


NEW QUESTION # 67
When are concurrent queries initiated?

  • A. After the health record has been coded
  • B. While the patient is hospitalized
  • C. Before patient is admitted
  • D. After discharge of the patient

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 68
......

Pass Your AHIMA Exam with CDIP Exam Dumps: https://surepass.free4dump.com/CDIP-real-dump.html